A nurse is caring for a patient who has been declared brain dead and is awaiting organ donation. Which of the following interventions is most important to preserve the viability of the organs?
A. Administering antibiotics to prevent infection.
B. Maintaining normal body temperature and blood pressure.
C. Providing emotional support to the family members.
D. Applying eye drops and ointment to prevent corneal drying.
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The correct answer is choice B.
Maintaining normal body temperature and blood pressure.
Early identification and management of potential organ donors must take into consideration specific pathophysiologic changes for medical optimization 1.
The VIPPS (ventilation, infusion and pumping, pharmacological treatment, and specificities) strategy is a mnemonic method that brings together key aspects of the restoration of oxygen delivery to tissues during hemodynamic instability plus organ optimization strategies.
Choice A is incorrect because administering antibiotics to prevent infection is not the most important intervention to preserve organ viability.
Choice C is incorrect because providing emotional support to family members, while important, is not an intervention that directly affects organ viability.
Choice D is incorrect because applying eye drops and ointment to prevent corneal drying is not the most important intervention to preserve organ viability.
Therefore, the Correct Answer is B.
More Questions on TEAS 7 Science Test 4
Question 1:
During the menstrual cycle, which structure in the ovary produces progesterone to prepare the endometrium for potential implantation?
A. Corpus luteum.
B. Fimbriae
C. Follicle
D. Ovarian ligament.
The Correct Answer is A.Corpus luteum.
During the menstrual cycle, the corpus luteum in the ovary produces progesterone to prepare the endometrium for potential implantation.
Choice B is incorrect because fimbriae are finger-like projections at the end of the fallopian tubes that help guide the egg into the tube.
Choice C is incorrect because a follicle is a sac in the ovary that contains an immature egg.
Choice D is incorrect because the ovarian ligament is a fibrous band of tissue that connects the ovary to the uterus.
Question 2:
What is hydrogen bonding?
A. The attraction between the relatively positive areas of one molecule and the relatively negative areas of another molecule.
B. The repulsion between the positive and negative charges of two molecules.
C. The attraction between two nonpolar molecules.
D. The attraction between two ionic molecules.
The Correct Answer is A.Hydrogen bonding is an interaction involving a hydrogen atom located between a pair of other atoms having a high affinity for electrons.
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One atom of the pair (the donor), generally a fluorine, nitrogen, or oxygen atom, is covalently bonded to a hydrogen atom, whose electrons it shares unequally; its high electron affinity causes the hydrogen to take on a slight positive charge.
The other atom of the pair (the acceptor), also typically F, N, or O, has an unshared electron pair, which gives it a slight negative charge.
Mainly through electrostatic attraction, the donor atom effectively shares its hydrogen with the acceptor atom, forming a bond.
Choice B) The repulsion between the positive and negative charges of two molecules is incorrect because hydrogen bonding involves attraction, not repulsion.
Choice C) The attraction between two nonpolar molecules is incorrect because hydrogen bonding involves polar molecules.
Choice D) The attraction between two ionic molecules is incorrect because hydrogen bonding involves polar molecules and not ionic molecules.
Question 3:
Which of the following represents the first line of defense to an intruding pathogen?
A. Adaptive immunity
B. Antibodies
C. Innate immunity
D. T cells .
The Correct Answer is C.Innate immunity represents the first line of defense to an intruding pathogen.
The innate immune system is a series of nonspecific defenses that make up the innate immune system.
These defenses are not directed against any one pathogen but instead provide a guard against all infection.
Choice A is incorrect because adaptive immunity is activated when pathogens are able to bypass innate immune defenses.
Choice B is incorrect because antibodies are part of the adaptive immune system and are produced by B cells.
Choice D is incorrect because T cells are part of the adaptive immune system and assist B cells or directly kill infected cells.
Question 4:
A patient with a history of heart failure is prescribed a medication that increases urine output to reduce fluid buildup.
Which of the following statements best describes the mechanism of action of the prescribed medication?
A. Inhibits the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
B. Blocks beta receptors.
C. Increases sodium and water reabsorption.
D. Enhances glomerular filtration rate.
The Correct Answer is D.The correct answer is choice D - Enhances glomerular filtration rate.
The medication prescribed to the patient is a diuretic, which removes water and electrolytes from the body by increasing urination 1.
This helps reduce fluid buildup in the body.
Choice A, Inhibits the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, is not the correct answer because it describes a different mechanism of action.
Choice B, Blocks beta receptors, is not the correct answer because it describes a different mechanism of action.
Choice C, Increases sodium and water reabsorption, is not the correct answer because it would have the opposite effect of reducing fluid buildup.
Question 5:
Which subatomic particle contributes to the positive charge of an atom?
A. Proton
B. Neutron
C. Electron
D. Nucleon
The Correct Answer is A.Protons contribute to the positive charge of an atom.
Protons are subatomic particles with a positive charge found in the nucleus of an atom.
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Choice B is incorrect because neutrons are neutral and do not have a charge. Choice C is incorrect because electrons have a negative charge.
Choice D is incorrect because nucleons refer to both protons and neutrons, but only protons contribute to the positive charge of an atom.
Question 6:
What is the organelle that encapsulates the contents of the cell and plays a vital role in regulating the movement of substances in and out of the cell?.
A. Ribosome
B. Nucleus
C. Mitochondria
D. Plasma membrane.
The Correct Answer is D.The plasma membrane is the organelle that encapsulates the contents of the cell and plays a vital role in regulating the movement of substances in and out of the cell.
It is a selectively permeable barrier that separates the internal environment of the cell from the external environment.
Choice A is incorrect because ribosomes are organelles involved in protein synthesis, not in regulating the movement of substances in and out of the cell.
Choice B is incorrect because the nucleus is an organelle that contains the cell’s genetic material, not in regulating the movement of substances in and out of the cell.
Choice C is incorrect because mitochondria are organelles involved in energy production, not in regulating the movement of substances in and out of the cell.
Question 7:
Which hormone is responsible for the development of female secondary sexual characteristics such as breast development, menstrual cycle, and widening of hips?
A. Progesterone
B. Testosterone
C. Estrogen
D. FSH
The Correct Answer is C.The correct answer is choice C. Estrogen.
Estrogen is a steroid hormone responsible for the development of female secondary sexual characteristics such as breast development, menstrual cycle, and widening of hips.
Choice A, Progesterone, is not the correct answer because it is required to maintain pregnancy and delivery.
Choice B, Testosterone, is not the correct answer because it is a hormone produced by the testes which controls the development of male secondary sexual characteristics.
Choice D, FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone), is not the correct answer because it stimulates the growth of ovarian follicles in females and regulates spermatogenesis in males.
Question 8:
Which process involves the fusion of male and female gametes resulting in the formation of a zygote?
A. Oogenesis.
B. Fertilization.
C. Meiosis.
D. Mitosis.
The Correct Answer is B.Fertilization.
Fertilization is the process by which male and female gametes fuse to form a zygote.
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Oogenesis (choice A) is the process by which female gametes, or eggs, are produced.
Meiosis (choice C) is a type of cell division that results in the formation of gametes.
Mitosis (choice D) is a type of cell division that results in the formation of two identical daughter cells.
Question 9:
In which type of tissue would you find a fibrous protein that provides strength and protection to the body, particularly in the skin, hair, and nails?
A. Keratin
B. Collagen
C. Elastin
D. Actin
The Correct Answer is A.The correct answer is choice A. Keratin.
Keratin is a fibrous protein that provides strength and protection to the body, particularly in the skin, hair, and nails.
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It is found in epithelial tissue, which covers the body’s surface and lines its internal organs and cavities.
Choice B.
Collagen is incorrect because collagen is a fibrous protein that provides strength and support to connective tissues such as tendons, ligaments, and cartilage.
Choice C.
Elastin is incorrect because elastin is a protein that provides elasticity to tissues such as skin and blood vessels.
Choice D.
Actin is incorrect because actin is a protein that plays a role in muscle contraction and cell movement.
Question 10:
Which of the following structures in the nephron is responsible for reabsorbing ions, water and nutrients?
A. Distal tubule
B. Proximal tubule
C. Glomerulus
D. Loop of Henle
The Correct Answer is B.Proximal tubule
The proximal tubule is responsible for reabsorbing all the nutrients and most of the water.
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Choice A is incorrect because the distal tubule is not primarily responsible for reabsorbing ions, water and nutrients.
Choice C is incorrect because the glomerulus is responsible for filtering fluid and solutes out of the blood to form a glomerular filtrate.
Choice D is incorrect because the Loop of Henle is not primarily responsible for reabsorbing ions, water and nutrients.