Given that there are over 100 million residential addresses in the United States, which of the following best describes a flaw of this survey as it is described?

A. There were not enough age groups to show a trend based on age.

B. The addresses were chosen randomly rather than strategically

C. The distribution of ages in the sample did not reflect the actual population

D. Each response represents only one person per address

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Answer Explanation:

While the random selection and large number of surveys sent out were a good start, to truly study the relationship between age and screen usage, it would have been better to have a few more age groups or just a direct age value from each participant rather than four large categories. As far as whether the age distribution accurately reflected the population, we don't have enough information to say if that was a problem or not. Also, the fact that each response is from just one person at the address is not a flaw but a reasonable way to get a good variety of responses

Therefore, the Correct Answer is A.

More Questions on TEAS 7 Science Practice Test 1

Question 1:

Which of the following anatomical terms is NOT part of the knee?

A. Medial collateral ligament

B. Patella

C. Lateral malleolus

D. Lateral meniscus

The Correct Answer is C.

The term "lateral malleolus" refers to the bony prominence on the outer side of the ankle.

It is part of the ankle joint, not the knee joint. The other options, such as the medial collateral ligament, patella, and lateral meniscus, are all associated with the knee joint.


Question 2:

What type of mutation is represented by the following sequence?

Original: 123456

Mutated: 154326

A. Breakage

B. Deletion

C. Insertion

D. Inversion

The Correct Answer is D.

An inversion mutation is represented in the sequence 1 5 4 3 2 6. An inversion error is a type of mutation where an entire sequence of DNA is reversed. In this case, 2 3 4 5 has been reversed to 5 4 3 2.

Breakage, choice A, in a gene can mess up its function entirely or lead to a translocation of genetic information. Choice B, deletion, is when a section of DNA is omitted or lost.

Choice C, Insertion, is when an extra base pair is added to a DNA sequence. Deletions and insertions can lead to a frameshift effect where entire sequences are thrown off because one nucleotide is wrong.

This could result in coding for the wrong amino acid and non-functioning proteins.


Question 3:

A patient lying flat on their back is in which of the following positions?

A. Prone

B. Supine

C. Lateral

D. Medial

The Correct Answer is B.

Question 4:

Which of the below is the best definition for the term circulation?

A. The transport of oxygen and other nutrients to the tissues via the cardiovascular system

B. The force exerted by blood against a unit area of the blood vessel walls

C. The branching air passageways inside the lungs

D. The process of breathing in

The Correct Answer is A.

Circulation is transporting oxygen and other nutrients to the tissues via the cardiovascular system. Choice B refers to blood pressure. Bronchi are the branching airways inside the lungs, while inhalation refers to the process of breathing in.


Question 5:

When animals eat, insulin is released from the pancreas, stimulating glucose uptake by the liver. When glucose levels drop, the pancreas reduces insulin release. This is an example of which mechanism for maintaining homeostasis?

A. Negative feedback

B. Positive feedback

C. Stress response

D. Parasympathetic regulation

The Correct Answer is A.

Maintaining homeostasis means that conditions are kept stable and relatively constant. Negative feedback is a mechanism used to reverse or minimize changes in a system. In this example, negative feedback is used to keep the body's glucose and insulin levels stable. Positive feedback (B) is a mechanism that Increases changes in a system. A stress response (C) describes the body's reaction to threats or pressures. Parasympathetic regulation (D) refers to activities of the nervous system, including slowing the heart rate and boosting Intestinal activity.


Question 6:

Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?

A. Releasing compressed gas to make a bottle-rocket launch

B. Adding water to clay to make slip

C. Crystalizing honey to make candy

D. Including baking soda in a recipe to make it less sour

The Correct Answer is D.

A chemical change involves a chemical reaction and new substances are produced. When baking soda is added to something sour (acidic) it neutralizes the acid and forms new molecules, in this case carbon dioxide and water. A physical change does not produce new substances. Phase changes such as evaporation and sublimation are physical changes. Changing the ratio of ingredients in a mixture, like adding more water to clay, does not change it chemically, but it can change some of the mixture's physical properties.


Question 7:

Which of the following molecules exhibits ionic bonding?

A. NaCl

B. CO2

C. C6H12O6

D. H2O

The Correct Answer is A.

Sodium chloride exhibits lonic bonding due to the attraction between Na+ ions and Cl- ions.

Typically, elements on the opposite sides of the periodic table (a metal and a nonmetal) form ionic bonds. Carbon dioxide, water, and glucose exhibit covalent bonding. Typically, elements on the same side of the periodic table (two or more nonmetals) form covalent bonds.


Question 8:

A group of researchers have conducted a study examining the impact of a new medication on blood pressure.

What is the purpose of submitting the study for publication in a peer-reviewed journal?

A. Other scientists can validate or disprove the findings.

B. Publication in a peer-reviewed journal will guarantee acceptance of the study's conclusions.

C. Publication in a peer-reviewed journal is unnecessary for this type of study.

D. Publication in a peer-reviewed journal will lead to the manipulation of the study's results.

The Correct Answer is A.

Other scientists can validate or disprove the findings.

The purpose of submitting a study for publication in a peer-reviewed journal is to have the study’s methodology, results, and conclusions evaluated by other experts in the field.

This process helps to ensure the quality and validity of the research. Choice B.

Publication in a peer-reviewed journal will guarantee acceptance of the study’s conclusions is incorrect because publication in a peer-reviewed journal does not guarantee acceptance of the study’s conclusions.

The study’s findings may still be subject to debate and further research. Choice C.

Publication in a peer-reviewed journal is unnecessary for this type of study is incorrect because publication in a peer-reviewed journal is an important step in the scientific process for all types of studies.

Choice D.

Publication in a peer-reviewed journal will lead to the manipulation of the study’s results is incorrect because the peer-review process is designed to prevent manipulation of results by ensuring that the study meets rigorous standards for quality and validity.


Question 9:

Which of the following is a carbohydrate?

A. Cellulose

B. Hemoglobin

C. Estrogen

D. ATP

The Correct Answer is A.

Cellulose is a complex carbohydrate that composes the better part of the cell wall.

Hemoglobin is a protein and is found in red blood cells. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is a compound used by living organisms to store and use energy. Estrogen is a steroid hormone that stimulates the development of female sex characteristics.


Question 10:

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of enzymes?

A. They change shape when they bind their substrates.

B. They can catalyze reactions in both forward and reverse directions.

C. Their activity is sensitive to changes in temperature.

D. They are always active on more than one kind of substrate.

The Correct Answer is D.

Enzymes are substrate-specific. Most enzymes catalyze only one biochemical reaction. Their active sites are specific for a certain type of substrate and do not bind to other substrates and catalyze other reactions.