How do neurons communicate with each other?
A. Through electrical signals only
B. Through chemical signals only
C. Through electrical and chemical signals
D. Through mechanical signals only.
For those aiming to excel in their ATI TEAS test and secure admission into their desired nursing program, ExamGates offers an invaluable resource. Our platform features practice questions meticulously crafted by tutors who have previously aced the exam themselves. With ExamGates, you can access content that is 100% relevant to the test, accompanied by vivid images and illustrations. Additionally, our platform provides comprehensive explanations for both correct and incorrect answers, empowering you to fully grasp the material and optimize your study efforts. Take the first step towards your nursing aspirations with ExamGates today.
Neurons communicate with each other through both electrical and chemical signals.
The electrical signal, or action potential, runs from the cell body area to the axon terminals, through a thin fiber called axon.
Neurons also communicate with one another at junctions called synapses.
At a synapse, one neuron sends a message to a target neuron—another cell.
Most synapses are chemical; these synapses communicate using chemical messengers.
Choice A is incorrect because neurons communicate not only through electrical signals but also through chemical signals.
Choice B is incorrect because neurons communicate not only through chemical signals but also through electrical signals.
Choice D is incorrect because neurons do not communicate through mechanical signals.
Therefore, the Correct Answer is C.
More Questions on TEAS 7 Science Test 4
Question 1:
Which of the following is true regarding the role of oncogenes in cancer development?
A. Mutations in oncogenes always result in the inhibition of cell division.
B. Oncogenes are only found in human cells and not in any other organism.
C. Genes that regulate cell division are not found in any viruses.
D. Genes that regulate cell division can become oncogenes when mutated.
The Correct Answer is D.The correct answer is choice D.
Genes that regulate cell division can become oncogenes when mutated.
Oncogenes are mutated genes that can contribute to the development of cancer.
In their non-mutated state, everyone has genes which are referred to as proto- oncogenes.
When proto-oncogenes are mutated or increased in numbers due to DNA damage, the proteins produced by these genes can affect the growth, proliferation, and survival of the cell, and potentially result in the formation of a malignant tumor.
Choice A is incorrect because mutations in oncogenes do not always result in the inhibition of cell division.
Instead, they can contribute to the development of cancer by affecting cell growth.
Choice B is incorrect because oncogenes are not only found in human cells but can be present in other organisms as well.
Choice C is incorrect because genes that regulate cell division can be found in viruses.
Question 2:
How do neurons communicate with each other?
A. Through electrical signals only
B. Through chemical signals only
C. Through electrical and chemical signals
D. Through mechanical signals only.
The Correct Answer is C.Neurons communicate with each other through both electrical and chemical signals.
The electrical signal, or action potential, runs from the cell body area to the axon terminals, through a thin fiber called axon.
Neurons also communicate with one another at junctions called synapses.
At a synapse, one neuron sends a message to a target neuron—another cell.
Most synapses are chemical; these synapses communicate using chemical messengers.
Choice A is incorrect because neurons communicate not only through electrical signals but also through chemical signals.
Choice B is incorrect because neurons communicate not only through chemical signals but also through electrical signals.
Choice D is incorrect because neurons do not communicate through mechanical signals.
Question 3:
What is the relationship between viruses and their host cells during replication?
A. Viruses use the host’s replication processes to produce progeny virus particles.
B. Viruses divide inside the host cell to produce progeny virus particles.
C. Viruses have their own replication processes and do not need the host cell.
D. Viruses infect the host cell and destroy it completely.
The Correct Answer is A.Viruses use the host’s replication processes to produce progeny virus particles.
Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites, meaning that they require a host cell to replicate.
They hijack the host cell’s machinery to produce new virus particles.
 |
Choice B is incorrect because viruses do not divide inside the host cell.
Instead, they use the host cell’s machinery to produce new virus particles.
Choice C is incorrect because viruses do not have their own replication processes and rely on the host cell for replication.
Choice D is incorrect because while some viruses may destroy the host cell during replication, this is not always the case and is not the primary relationship between viruses and their host cells during replication.
Question 4:
A nurse is caring for a patient who has been declared brain dead and is awaiting organ donation.
Which of the following interventions is most important to preserve the viability of the organs?
A. Administering antibiotics to prevent infection.
B. Maintaining normal body temperature and blood pressure.
C. Providing emotional support to the family members.
D. Applying eye drops and ointment to prevent corneal drying.
The Correct Answer is B.The correct answer is choice B.
Maintaining normal body temperature and blood pressure.
Early identification and management of potential organ donors must take into consideration specific pathophysiologic changes for medical optimization 1.
The VIPPS (ventilation, infusion and pumping, pharmacological treatment, and specificities) strategy is a mnemonic method that brings together key aspects of the restoration of oxygen delivery to tissues during hemodynamic instability plus organ optimization strategies.
Choice A is incorrect because administering antibiotics to prevent infection is not the most important intervention to preserve organ viability.
Choice C is incorrect because providing emotional support to family members, while important, is not an intervention that directly affects organ viability.
Choice D is incorrect because applying eye drops and ointment to prevent corneal drying is not the most important intervention to preserve organ viability.
Question 5:
How does the use of a catalyst affect the activation energy of a chemical reaction?
A. It increases the activation energy required for the reaction.
B. It decreases the activation energy required for the reaction.
C. It has no effect on the activation energy required for the reaction.
D. It increases the rate of reaction but has no effect on the activation energy.
The Correct Answer is B.The correct answer is choice B.
It decreases the activation energy required for the reaction.
A catalyst provides a new reaction pathway in which a lower activation energy is offered.
This allows more reactant molecules to collide with enough energy to surmount the smaller energy barrier, increasing the rate of reaction 2.
Choice A, It increases the activation energy required for the reaction, is not the correct answer because it describes the opposite effect of a catalyst.
Choice C, It has no effect on the activation energy required for the reaction, is not the correct answer because a catalyst does have an effect on activation energy.
Choice D, It increases the rate of reaction but has no effect on the activation energy, is not the correct answer because a catalyst increases the rate of reaction by decreasing the activation energy.
Question 6:
A nurse is caring for a patient who has suffered a traumatic brain injury after falling from a height.
The nurse knows that the severity of the injury depends on the speed at which the patient hit the ground.
Which of the following factors affects the terminal velocity of a falling object?
A. The shape and surface area of the object.
B. The mass and volume of the object.
C. The acceleration and momentum of the object.
D. The height and distance of the fall.
The Correct Answer is A.The correct answer is choice A.
The shape and surface area of the object.
The terminal velocity of an object falling through a fluid is affected by several factors, including its mass and shape.
Objects with large surface areas will often experience a large amount of air resistance when they move.
Choice B is incorrect because the volume of the object does not affect its terminal velocity.
Choice C is incorrect because the acceleration and momentum of the object do not affect its terminal velocity.
Choice D is incorrect because the height and distance of the fall do not affect the terminal velocity of a falling object.
Question 7:
Which of the following is a consequence of increased viscosity of a fluid?
A. Particles have a decrease in mobility.
B. The fluid will have a lower density.
C. The fluid will have a higher flow rate.
D. The fluid will have a higher pressure.
The Correct Answer is A.The correct answer is choice A.
An increase in viscosity of a fluid results in a decrease in mobility of particles.
Viscosity is the resistance of a fluid to a change in shape or movement of neighboring portions relative to one another.
It denotes opposition to flow and may be thought of as internal friction between the molecules.
Choice B is incorrect because an increase in viscosity does not affect the density of a fluid.
Choice C is incorrect because an increase in viscosity results in a decrease, not an increase, in flow rate.
Choice D is incorrect because an increase in viscosity does not affect the pressure of a fluid.
Question 8:
A nurse is conducting a research study to compare the effects of two different pain medications on postoperative patients.
The nurse randomly assigns the patients to either receive medication A or medication B. Which of the following is the best way to ensure that the study is valid and reliable?
A. Use a large sample size and a standardized procedure for administering the medications.
B. Use a placebo group and a double-blind technique for giving the medications.
C. Use a matched-pairs design and a crossover technique for switching the medications.
D. Use a convenience sample and a pretest-posttest design for measuring the pain levels.
The Correct Answer is B.The correct answer is choice B.
Using a placebo group and a double-blind technique for giving the medications is the best way to ensure that the study is valid and reliable.
A placebo group helps control for the placebo effect, which can influence the results of a study.
A double-blind technique means that neither the patients nor the researchers know which medication is being given, reducing bias.
Choice A is not the best answer because while a large sample size and standardized procedure can increase reliability, they do not address validity.
Choice C is not the best answer because a matched-pairs design and crossover technique are useful for reducing variability but do not address validity.
Choice D is not the best answer because a convenience sample may not be representative and a pretest-posttest design does not control for extraneous variables.
Question 9:
Why is water sometimes called the "universal solvent"?.
A. Because water dissolves all solutes equally well.
B. Because water is a nonpolar solvent.
C. Because water is good at dissolving ions and polar molecules.
D. Because water is poor at dissolving nonpolar molecules.
The Correct Answer is C.Water is sometimes called the “universal solvent” because it dissolves more substances than any other liquid.
This is due to its polarity and ability to form hydrogen bonds, which allows it to dissolve ions and polar molecules.
Choice A) Because water dissolves all solutes equally well is incorrect because water does not dissolve all solutes equally well.
Choice B) Because water is a nonpolar solvent is incorrect because water is a polar solvent.
Choice D) Because water is poor at dissolving nonpolar molecules is incorrect because it does not explain why water is called the “universal solvent”.
Question 10:
What is the function of inflammatory cytokines released during the early response to bacterial infection?
A. Enhancing the phagocytosis of pathogens and disrupting the infection
B. Attacking invading pathogens
C. Initiating cell recruitment and local inflammation
D. Secreting antibodies to neutralize pathogens .
The Correct Answer is C.Inflammatory cytokines released during the early response to bacterial infection play a crucial role in initiating cell recruitment and local inflammation 1.
They induce the expression of adhesion molecules in endothelial cells and promote the recruitment of neutrophils to the site of inflammation 1.
Choice A is incorrect because while inflammatory cytokines may enhance phagocytosis, they do not directly disrupt the infection.
Choice B is incorrect because inflammatory cytokines do not directly attack invading pathogens.
Choice D is incorrect because inflammatory cytokines do not secrete antibodies to neutralize pathogens.