What is the purpose of using PCR (polymerase chain reaction) in the laboratory?

A. To separate DNA fragments by size.

B. To amplify specific regions of DNA.

C. To sequence DNA fragments.

D. To analyze protein expression levels.

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Answer Explanation:

The correct answer is choice B.

To amplify specific regions of DNA.

PCR (polymerase chain reaction) is a laboratory technique used to make many copies of a specific region of DNA.

 
  Polymerase chain reaction - Wikipedia

 

 

The goal of PCR is to make enough of the target DNA region that it can be analyzed or used in some other way.

PCR has many research and practical applications, including DNA cloning, medical diagnostics, and forensic analysis of DNA.

Choice A is incorrect because PCR does not separate DNA fragments by size. Choice C is incorrect because PCR does not sequence DNA fragments.

Choice D is incorrect because PCR does not analyze protein expression levels.

Therefore, the Correct Answer is B.

More Questions on TEAS 7 Science Test 4

Question 1:

Which of the following structures in the nephron is responsible for reabsorbing ions, water and nutrients?

A. Distal tubule

B. Proximal tubule

C. Glomerulus

D. Loop of Henle

The Correct Answer is B.

Proximal tubule

The proximal tubule is responsible for reabsorbing all the nutrients and most of the water.

 
  Tubular System | Concise Medical Knowledge

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Choice A is incorrect because the distal tubule is not primarily responsible for reabsorbing ions, water and nutrients.

Choice C is incorrect because the glomerulus is responsible for filtering fluid and solutes out of the blood to form a glomerular filtrate.

Choice D is incorrect because the Loop of Henle is not primarily responsible for reabsorbing ions, water and nutrients.


Question 2:

How does the use of a catalyst affect the activation energy of a chemical reaction?

A. It increases the activation energy required for the reaction.

B. It decreases the activation energy required for the reaction.

C. It has no effect on the activation energy required for the reaction.

D. It increases the rate of reaction but has no effect on the activation energy.

The Correct Answer is B.

The correct answer is choice B.

It decreases the activation energy required for the reaction.

A catalyst provides a new reaction pathway in which a lower activation energy is offered.

This allows more reactant molecules to collide with enough energy to surmount the smaller energy barrier, increasing the rate of reaction 2.

Choice A, It increases the activation energy required for the reaction, is not the correct answer because it describes the opposite effect of a catalyst.

Choice C, It has no effect on the activation energy required for the reaction, is not the correct answer because a catalyst does have an effect on activation energy.

Choice D, It increases the rate of reaction but has no effect on the activation energy, is not the correct answer because a catalyst increases the rate of reaction by decreasing the activation energy.


Question 3:

What is the relationship between atomic mass and mass number?

A. They are the same.

B. Atomic mass is always greater than mass number.

C. Atomic mass and mass number are not related.

D. Atomic mass is very close to mass number but with some deviation in the decimal places.

The Correct Answer is D.

Atomic mass is very close to mass number but with some deviation in the decimal places.

Atomic mass is also known as atomic weight and is the weighted average mass of an atom of an element based on the relative natural abundance of that element’s isotopes.

 
  Difference Between Atomic Mass and Mass Number

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

The mass number, on the other hand, is a count of the total number of protons and neutrons in an atom’s nucleus.

Choice A is incorrect because atomic mass and mass number do not mean the same thing.

Choice B is incorrect because atomic mass is not always greater than mass number.

Choice C is incorrect because atomic mass and mass number are related.


Question 4:

What is the function of the neuromuscular junction?

A. To connect muscle fibers to motor neurons

B. To bind acetylcholine to nAChRs

C. To depolarize the muscle cell membrane D.

D. To activate voltage-gated sodium channels on the muscle membrane .

The Correct Answer is A.

The neuromuscular junction is a type of synapse where neuronal signals from the brain or spinal cord interact with skeletal muscle fibers, causing them to contract.

My Notes for USMLE „ houseofmind: The Neuromuscular Junction (NMJ)...

The activation of many muscle fibers together causes muscles to contract, which in turn can produce movement.

Choice B is incorrect because binding acetylcholine to nAChRs is a process that occurs at the neuromuscular junction, but it is not the function of the neuromuscular junction itself.

Choice C is incorrect because depolarizing the muscle cell membrane is a result of the function of the neuromuscular junction, but it is not the function itself.

Choice D is incorrect because activating voltage-gated sodium channels on the muscle membrane is a result of the function of the neuromuscular junction, but it is not the function itself.


Question 5:

What is the hallmark of adaptive immunity?

A. Rapid recruitment of immune cells to sites of infection and inflammation

B. Antigen-independent defense mechanism

C. Immunologic memory

D. Non-specific host-defense mechanisms .

The Correct Answer is C.

Immunologic memory is the hallmark of adaptive immunity.

Immunologic memory enables the host to mount a more rapid and efficient immune response upon subsequent exposure to the antigen.

Choice A is incorrect because rapid recruitment of immune cells to sites of infection and inflammation is a characteristic of innate immunity.

Choice B is incorrect because antigen-independent defense mechanisms are characteristic of innate immunity.

Choice D is incorrect because non-specific host-defense mechanisms are characteristic of innate immunity.


Question 6:

What is the name of the process in which an atom loses or gains electrons to form an ion?

A. Ionization

B. Oxidation

C. Reduction

D. Isotopic decay

The Correct Answer is A.

Ionization is the process in which an atom loses or gains electrons to form an ion.

An ion is an atom or molecule that has a net electrical charge due to the loss or gain of one or more electrons.

Choice B is not the best answer because oxidation refers to the loss of electrons from an atom or molecule.

Choice C is not the best answer because reduction refers to the gain of electrons by an atom or molecule.

Choice D is not the best answer because isotopic decay refers to the process in which an unstable atomic nucleus loses energy by emitting radiation


Question 7:

Which of the following refers to a condition in which a patient experiences difficulty breathing while lying down, but their breathing improves when they sit up or stand?

A. Orthopnea

B. Hypoxia

C. Tachypnea

D. Bradypnea

The Correct Answer is A.

The correct answer is choice A. Orthopnea.

Orthopnea refers to a condition in which a patient experiences difficulty breathing while lying down, but their breathing improves when they sit up or stand.

 
  Orthopnea: Symptoms, Causes, Diagnosis, and Treatment

 

 

 

Choice B, Hypoxia, is not the correct answer because it refers to a condition in which there is a lack of oxygen supply to the body’s tissues.

Choice C, Tachypnea, is not the correct answer because it refers to rapid breathing.

Choice D, Bradypnea, is not the correct answer because it refers to abnormally slow breathing.


Question 8:

What is the purpose of using PCR (polymerase chain reaction) in the laboratory?

A. To separate DNA fragments by size.

B. To amplify specific regions of DNA.

C. To sequence DNA fragments.

D. To analyze protein expression levels.

The Correct Answer is B.

The correct answer is choice B.

To amplify specific regions of DNA.

PCR (polymerase chain reaction) is a laboratory technique used to make many copies of a specific region of DNA.

 
  Polymerase chain reaction - Wikipedia

 

 

The goal of PCR is to make enough of the target DNA region that it can be analyzed or used in some other way.

PCR has many research and practical applications, including DNA cloning, medical diagnostics, and forensic analysis of DNA.

Choice A is incorrect because PCR does not separate DNA fragments by size. Choice C is incorrect because PCR does not sequence DNA fragments.

Choice D is incorrect because PCR does not analyze protein expression levels.


Question 9:

What is the normal flora?

A. A variety of microbial species found in certain areas of the human body.

B. A group of infectious parasites that cause diarrheal diseases.

C. The genetic material of bacteria housed within a true nucleus.

D. The protein coat surrounding the viral genome.

The Correct Answer is A.

The normal flora refers to the microbial community that colonizes on the skin and mucus membrane .

Normal flora can be found in many sites of the human body including the skin, respiratory tract, urinary tract, and the digestive tract.

Frontiers | Microbial Colonization From the Fetus to Early Childhood„A  Comprehensive Review

Choice B is incorrect because normal flora does not refer to a group of infectious parasites that cause diarrheal diseases .

Choice C is incorrect because normal flora does not refer to the genetic material of bacteria housed within a true nucleus .

Choice D is incorrect because normal flora does not refer to the protein coat surrounding the viral genome .


Question 10:

Which of the following is true regarding the role of oncogenes in cancer development?

A. Mutations in oncogenes always result in the inhibition of cell division.

B. Oncogenes are only found in human cells and not in any other organism.

C. Genes that regulate cell division are not found in any viruses.

D. Genes that regulate cell division can become oncogenes when mutated.

The Correct Answer is D.

The correct answer is choice D.

Genes that regulate cell division can become oncogenes when mutated.

Oncogenes are mutated genes that can contribute to the development of cancer.

Oncogene - Wikipedia

In their non-mutated state, everyone has genes which are referred to as proto- oncogenes.

When proto-oncogenes are mutated or increased in numbers due to DNA damage, the proteins produced by these genes can affect the growth, proliferation, and survival of the cell, and potentially result in the formation of a malignant tumor.

Choice A is incorrect because mutations in oncogenes do not always result in the inhibition of cell division.

Instead, they can contribute to the development of cancer by affecting cell growth.

Choice B is incorrect because oncogenes are not only found in human cells but can be present in other organisms as well.
Choice C is incorrect because genes that regulate cell division can be found in viruses.