Which cytotoxic lymphocyte granules contain serine proteases that induce apoptosis in target cells?.
A. Perforins.
B. Cytokines.
C. Granzymes.
D. Interferons.
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Granzymes.
Granzymes are a family of serine proteases that are stored in and secreted from the cytotoxic granules of cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL) and natural killer (NK) cells.
They work in synergy with perforin, a pore-forming toxin, to induce apoptosis in target cells.
Perforin is necessary for the delivery of granzyme B to the target cell cytosol where caspase-dependent and -independent pathways to apoptosis are activated.
Perforins (choice A) are pore-forming toxins that work in synergy with granzymes to induce apoptosis in target cells.
Cytokines (choice B) are signaling molecules that regulate immune responses but do not directly induce apoptosis in target cells.
Interferons (choice D) are a type of cytokine that play a role in immune responses but do not directly induce apoptosis in target cells.
Therefore, the Correct Answer is C.
More Questions on TEAS 7 Science Test 4
Question 1:
During the menstrual cycle, which structure in the ovary produces progesterone to prepare the endometrium for potential implantation?
A. Corpus luteum.
B. Fimbriae
C. Follicle
D. Ovarian ligament.
The Correct Answer is A.Corpus luteum.
During the menstrual cycle, the corpus luteum in the ovary produces progesterone to prepare the endometrium for potential implantation.
Choice B is incorrect because fimbriae are finger-like projections at the end of the fallopian tubes that help guide the egg into the tube.
Choice C is incorrect because a follicle is a sac in the ovary that contains an immature egg.
Choice D is incorrect because the ovarian ligament is a fibrous band of tissue that connects the ovary to the uterus.
Question 2:
Which process involves the fusion of male and female gametes resulting in the formation of a zygote?
A. Oogenesis.
B. Fertilization.
C. Meiosis.
D. Mitosis.
The Correct Answer is B.Fertilization.
Fertilization is the process by which male and female gametes fuse to form a zygote.
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Oogenesis (choice A) is the process by which female gametes, or eggs, are produced.
Meiosis (choice C) is a type of cell division that results in the formation of gametes.
Mitosis (choice D) is a type of cell division that results in the formation of two identical daughter cells.
Question 3:
Which of the following statements about bacteria and archaea is true?
A. A. Bacteria have a true nucleus while archaea do not
B. B. Archaea reproduce by spores while some bacteria reproduce by fission.
C. C. Bacteria can perform photosynthesis while archaea cannot.
D. D. Archaeal and bacterial flagella are constructed similarly.
The Correct Answer is C.Bacteria can perform photosynthesis while archaea cannot. Many types of bacteria can generate oxygen from sunlight through photosynthesis, while archaea cannot perform this process.
Choice A is incorrect because neither bacteria nor archaea have a true nucleus. Both are prokaryotic organisms. Choice B is incorrect because archaea reproduce by fission, fragmentation, or budding, while bacteria can produce spores and divide sexually or asexually. Choice D is incorrect because archaeal and bacterial flagella are constructed differently.
Question 4:
A nurse is conducting a research study to compare the effects of two different pain medications on postoperative patients.
The nurse randomly assigns the patients to either receive medication A or medication B. Which of the following is the best way to ensure that the study is valid and reliable?
A. Use a large sample size and a standardized procedure for administering the medications.
B. Use a placebo group and a double-blind technique for giving the medications.
C. Use a matched-pairs design and a crossover technique for switching the medications.
D. Use a convenience sample and a pretest-posttest design for measuring the pain levels.
The Correct Answer is B.The correct answer is choice B.
Using a placebo group and a double-blind technique for giving the medications is the best way to ensure that the study is valid and reliable.
A placebo group helps control for the placebo effect, which can influence the results of a study.
A double-blind technique means that neither the patients nor the researchers know which medication is being given, reducing bias.
Choice A is not the best answer because while a large sample size and standardized procedure can increase reliability, they do not address validity.
Choice C is not the best answer because a matched-pairs design and crossover technique are useful for reducing variability but do not address validity.
Choice D is not the best answer because a convenience sample may not be representative and a pretest-posttest design does not control for extraneous variables.
Question 5:
What is the purpose of using PCR (polymerase chain reaction) in the laboratory?
A. To separate DNA fragments by size.
B. To amplify specific regions of DNA.
C. To sequence DNA fragments.
D. To analyze protein expression levels.
The Correct Answer is B.The correct answer is choice B.
To amplify specific regions of DNA.
PCR (polymerase chain reaction) is a laboratory technique used to make many copies of a specific region of DNA.
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The goal of PCR is to make enough of the target DNA region that it can be analyzed or used in some other way.
PCR has many research and practical applications, including DNA cloning, medical diagnostics, and forensic analysis of DNA.
Choice A is incorrect because PCR does not separate DNA fragments by size. Choice C is incorrect because PCR does not sequence DNA fragments.
Choice D is incorrect because PCR does not analyze protein expression levels.
Question 6:
Which of the following structures in the nephron is responsible for reabsorbing ions, water and nutrients?
A. Distal tubule
B. Proximal tubule
C. Glomerulus
D. Loop of Henle
The Correct Answer is B.Proximal tubule
The proximal tubule is responsible for reabsorbing all the nutrients and most of the water.
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Choice A is incorrect because the distal tubule is not primarily responsible for reabsorbing ions, water and nutrients.
Choice C is incorrect because the glomerulus is responsible for filtering fluid and solutes out of the blood to form a glomerular filtrate.
Choice D is incorrect because the Loop of Henle is not primarily responsible for reabsorbing ions, water and nutrients.
Question 7:
A nurse is caring for a patient who has been declared brain dead and is awaiting organ donation.
Which of the following interventions is most important to preserve the viability of the organs?
A. Administering antibiotics to prevent infection.
B. Maintaining normal body temperature and blood pressure.
C. Providing emotional support to the family members.
D. Applying eye drops and ointment to prevent corneal drying.
The Correct Answer is B.The correct answer is choice B.
Maintaining normal body temperature and blood pressure.
Early identification and management of potential organ donors must take into consideration specific pathophysiologic changes for medical optimization 1.
The VIPPS (ventilation, infusion and pumping, pharmacological treatment, and specificities) strategy is a mnemonic method that brings together key aspects of the restoration of oxygen delivery to tissues during hemodynamic instability plus organ optimization strategies.
Choice A is incorrect because administering antibiotics to prevent infection is not the most important intervention to preserve organ viability.
Choice C is incorrect because providing emotional support to family members, while important, is not an intervention that directly affects organ viability.
Choice D is incorrect because applying eye drops and ointment to prevent corneal drying is not the most important intervention to preserve organ viability.
Question 8:
Which gland, located in the mediastinum, plays a key role in the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes?
A. Thymus
B. Parathyroid
C. Adrenal
D. Pituitary
The Correct Answer is A.The correct answer is choice A. Thymus.
The thymus is a primary lymphoid organ located in the mediastinum.
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It plays a key role in the maturation and differentiation of T-lymphocytes.
Choice B.
Parathyroid is incorrect because the parathyroid glands are small endocrine glands located in the neck that produce parathyroid hormone, which regulates calcium levels in the blood.
Choice C.
Adrenal is incorrect because the adrenal glands are endocrine glands located above the kidneys that produce hormones such as cortisol and adrenaline.
Choice D.
Pituitary is incorrect because the pituitary gland is an endocrine gland located at the base of the brain that produces hormones that regulate growth, metabolism, and reproductive functions.
Question 9:
Which type of bond is responsible for the unique properties of water and plays a crucial role in the structure of DNA and proteins?
A. Hydrogen bonds.
B. Covalent bonds.
C. Ionic bonds.
D. Van der Waals forces.
The Correct Answer is A.The correct answer is choice A. Hydrogen bonds.
Hydrogen bonds are responsible for the unique properties of water and play a crucial role in the structure of DNA and proteins.
Hydrogen bonds are weak electrostatic attractions between a hydrogen atom covalently bonded to an electronegative atom and another electronegative atom.
Choice B.
Covalent bonds is incorrect because covalent bonds are strong chemical bonds formed by the sharing of electrons between two atoms.
Choice C.
Ionic bonds is incorrect because ionic bonds are chemical bonds formed by the transfer of electrons from one atom to another, resulting in the formation of ions.
Choice D.
Van der Waals forces is incorrect because Van der Waals forces are weak intermolecular forces that arise from temporary dipoles induced in atoms or molecules.
Question 10:
What is a primer in DNA sequencing?
A. A short piece of double-stranded DNA that binds to the template DNA and acts as a "starter" for the polymerase.
B. A short piece of double-stranded DNA that binds to the primer and acts as a "starter" for the template.
C. A short piece of single-stranded DNA that binds to the template DNA and acts as a "starter" for the polymerase.
D. A short piece of single-stranded DNA that binds to the polymerase and acts as a "starter" for the template.
The Correct Answer is C.A primer is a short single-stranded DNA fragment used in certain laboratory techniques, such as the polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
In the PCR method, a pair of primers hybridizes with the sample DNA and defines the region that will be amplified.
Choice A) A short piece of double-stranded DNA that binds to the template DNA and acts as a “starter” for the polymerase is incorrect because primers are single-stranded, not double-stranded.
Choice B) A short piece of double-stranded DNA that binds to the primer and acts as a “starter” for the template is incorrect because it does not make sense for a primer to bind to itself.
Choice D) A short piece of single-stranded DNA that binds to the polymerase and acts as a “starter” for the template is incorrect because primers bind to the template DNA, not to the polymerase.
Note: DNA primers are used instead of RNA primers in DNA sequencing and PCR because DNA is more stable, specific, and compatible with the enzymes and processes involved in these techniques.