Which gland, located in the mediastinum, plays a key role in the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes?

A. Thymus

B. Parathyroid

C. Adrenal

D. Pituitary

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Answer Explanation:

The correct answer is choice A. Thymus.

The thymus is a primary lymphoid organ located in the mediastinum.

 
  Thymus gland - Mayo Clinic

 

 

It plays a key role in the maturation and differentiation of T-lymphocytes.

 

Choice B.

Parathyroid is incorrect because the parathyroid glands are small endocrine glands located in the neck that produce parathyroid hormone, which regulates calcium levels in the blood.

Choice C.

Adrenal is incorrect because the adrenal glands are endocrine glands located above the kidneys that produce hormones such as cortisol and adrenaline.

Choice D.

Pituitary is incorrect because the pituitary gland is an endocrine gland located at the base of the brain that produces hormones that regulate growth, metabolism, and reproductive functions.

Therefore, the Correct Answer is A.

More Questions on TEAS 7 Science Test 4

Question 1:

In which type of tissue would you find a fibrous protein that provides strength and protection to the body, particularly in the skin, hair, and nails?

A. Keratin

B. Collagen

C. Elastin

D. Actin

The Correct Answer is A.

The correct answer is choice A. Keratin.

Keratin is a fibrous protein that provides strength and protection to the body, particularly in the skin, hair, and nails.

 
  Keratin Overview, Structure & Function | What is Keratin? - Video & Lesson  Transcript | Study.com

 

 

 

It is found in epithelial tissue, which covers the body’s surface and lines its internal organs and cavities.

Choice B.

 

Collagen is incorrect because collagen is a fibrous protein that provides strength and support to connective tissues such as tendons, ligaments, and cartilage.

Choice C.

Elastin is incorrect because elastin is a protein that provides elasticity to tissues such as skin and blood vessels.

Choice D.

Actin is incorrect because actin is a protein that plays a role in muscle contraction and cell movement.


Question 2:

A patient with chronic kidney disease is at risk for developing which of the following electrolyte imbalances?

A. Decrease in the concentration of calcium in the glomerulus.

B. Increase in the concentration of potassium in the blood.

C. Decrease in the concentration of sodium in the blood.

D. Increase in the concentration of magnesium in the blood.

The Correct Answer is B.

The correct answer is choice B.

A patient with chronic kidney disease is at risk for developing an increase in the concentration of potassium in the blood.

The kidneys play a pivotal role in the regulation of electrolyte balance.

With progressive loss of kidney function, derangements in electrolytes inevitably occur and contribute to poor patient outcomes123.

Choice A is incorrect because calcium concentration is not regulated in the glomerulus.

Choice C is incorrect because chronic kidney disease can result in either an increase or decrease in sodium concentration in the blood.

Choice D is incorrect because chronic kidney disease does not necessarily result in an increase in magnesium concentration in the blood.


Question 3:

A nurse is caring for a patient who has suffered a traumatic brain injury after falling from a height.

The nurse knows that the severity of the injury depends on the speed at which the patient hit the ground.

Which of the following factors affects the terminal velocity of a falling object?

A. The shape and surface area of the object.

B. The mass and volume of the object.

C. The acceleration and momentum of the object.

D. The height and distance of the fall.

The Correct Answer is A.

The correct answer is choice A.

The shape and surface area of the object.

The terminal velocity of an object falling through a fluid is affected by several factors, including its mass and shape.

Terminal Velocity of a Human, Free Fall and Drag Force - Owlcation

Objects with large surface areas will often experience a large amount of air resistance when they move.

Choice B is incorrect because the volume of the object does not affect its terminal velocity.

Choice C is incorrect because the acceleration and momentum of the object do not affect its terminal velocity.

Choice D is incorrect because the height and distance of the fall do not affect the terminal velocity of a falling object.


Question 4:

What is the normal flora?

A. A variety of microbial species found in certain areas of the human body.

B. A group of infectious parasites that cause diarrheal diseases.

C. The genetic material of bacteria housed within a true nucleus.

D. The protein coat surrounding the viral genome.

The Correct Answer is A.

The normal flora refers to the microbial community that colonizes on the skin and mucus membrane .

Normal flora can be found in many sites of the human body including the skin, respiratory tract, urinary tract, and the digestive tract.

Frontiers | Microbial Colonization From the Fetus to Early Childhood„A  Comprehensive Review

Choice B is incorrect because normal flora does not refer to a group of infectious parasites that cause diarrheal diseases .

Choice C is incorrect because normal flora does not refer to the genetic material of bacteria housed within a true nucleus .

Choice D is incorrect because normal flora does not refer to the protein coat surrounding the viral genome .


Question 5:

Which of the following is a mechanism that the body uses to regulate blood pH levels?

A. Increased respiration rate to remove excess CO2.

B. Decreased respiration rate to retain CO2.

C. Increased water intake to dilute the blood.

D. Decreased water intake to concentrate the blood.

The Correct Answer is A.

The correct answer is choice A.

Increased respiration rate to remove excess CO2.

The body regulates blood pH through several mechanisms, including chemical buffers, the respiratory system, and the urinary system.

The respiratory system can adjust blood pH by changing the rate of respiration to remove or retain CO2.

When there is excess acid in the blood, the respiratory rate increases to remove more CO2, which helps to raise blood pH.

Choice B is incorrect because decreasing the respiration rate would retain CO2, which would lower blood pH.

Choice C is incorrect because increased water intake would not directly affect blood pH levels.

Choice D is incorrect because decreased water intake would not directly affect blood pH levels.


Question 6:

Which type of bond is responsible for the unique properties of water and plays a crucial role in the structure of DNA and proteins?

A. Hydrogen bonds.

B. Covalent bonds.

C. Ionic bonds.

D. Van der Waals forces.

The Correct Answer is A.

The correct answer is choice A. Hydrogen bonds.

Hydrogen bonds are responsible for the unique properties of water and play a crucial role in the structure of DNA and proteins.

Hydrogen bonds are weak electrostatic attractions between a hydrogen atom covalently bonded to an electronegative atom and another electronegative atom.

Choice B.

Covalent bonds is incorrect because covalent bonds are strong chemical bonds formed by the sharing of electrons between two atoms.

Choice C.

Ionic bonds is incorrect because ionic bonds are chemical bonds formed by the transfer of electrons from one atom to another, resulting in the formation of ions.

Choice D.

Van der Waals forces is incorrect because Van der Waals forces are weak intermolecular forces that arise from temporary dipoles induced in atoms or molecules.


Question 7:

Which of the following is a consequence of increased viscosity of a fluid?

A. Particles have a decrease in mobility.

B. The fluid will have a lower density.

C. The fluid will have a higher flow rate.

D. The fluid will have a higher pressure.

The Correct Answer is A.

The correct answer is choice A.

An increase in viscosity of a fluid results in a decrease in mobility of particles.

Viscosity is the resistance of a fluid to a change in shape or movement of neighboring portions relative to one another.

It denotes opposition to flow and may be thought of as internal friction between the molecules.

Choice B is incorrect because an increase in viscosity does not affect the density of a fluid.

Choice C is incorrect because an increase in viscosity results in a decrease, not an increase, in flow rate.

Choice D is incorrect because an increase in viscosity does not affect the pressure of a fluid.


Question 8:

Which type of lymphocyte is capable of killing tumor cells and infected cells without prior sensitization?.

A. Helper T cells.

B. B cells.

C. Natural killer cells.

D. Cytotoxic T cells .

The Correct Answer is C.

Natural killer cells.

Natural killer (NK) cells are large granular lymphocytes that are capable of destroying cells infected by viruses or bacteria and susceptible tumor cells without prior sensitization and restriction by MHC antigens.

Helper T cells (choice A) are a type of white blood cell that helps other immune cells respond to infections but do not directly kill infected or tumor cells.

B cells (choice B) are a type of white blood cell that produces antibodies to fight infections but do not directly kill infected or tumor cells.

Cytotoxic T cells (choice D) are a type of white blood cell that can kill infected or tumor cells but require prior sensitization to do so.


Question 9:

What is the relationship between atomic mass and mass number?

A. They are the same.

B. Atomic mass is always greater than mass number.

C. Atomic mass and mass number are not related.

D. Atomic mass is very close to mass number but with some deviation in the decimal places.

The Correct Answer is D.

Atomic mass is very close to mass number but with some deviation in the decimal places.

Atomic mass is also known as atomic weight and is the weighted average mass of an atom of an element based on the relative natural abundance of that element’s isotopes.

 
  Difference Between Atomic Mass and Mass Number

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

The mass number, on the other hand, is a count of the total number of protons and neutrons in an atom’s nucleus.

Choice A is incorrect because atomic mass and mass number do not mean the same thing.

Choice B is incorrect because atomic mass is not always greater than mass number.

Choice C is incorrect because atomic mass and mass number are related.


Question 10:

Which of the following is true regarding the role of oncogenes in cancer development?

A. Mutations in oncogenes always result in the inhibition of cell division.

B. Oncogenes are only found in human cells and not in any other organism.

C. Genes that regulate cell division are not found in any viruses.

D. Genes that regulate cell division can become oncogenes when mutated.

The Correct Answer is D.

The correct answer is choice D.

Genes that regulate cell division can become oncogenes when mutated.

Oncogenes are mutated genes that can contribute to the development of cancer.

Oncogene - Wikipedia

In their non-mutated state, everyone has genes which are referred to as proto- oncogenes.

When proto-oncogenes are mutated or increased in numbers due to DNA damage, the proteins produced by these genes can affect the growth, proliferation, and survival of the cell, and potentially result in the formation of a malignant tumor.

Choice A is incorrect because mutations in oncogenes do not always result in the inhibition of cell division.

Instead, they can contribute to the development of cancer by affecting cell growth.

Choice B is incorrect because oncogenes are not only found in human cells but can be present in other organisms as well.
Choice C is incorrect because genes that regulate cell division can be found in viruses.