Which of the following hormones is responsible for regulating the body's metabolism and energy levels?

A. Estrogen

B. Progestin

C. Thyroxine

D. Androgen

For those aiming to excel in their ATI TEAS test and secure admission into their desired nursing program, ExamGates offers an invaluable resource. Our platform features practice questions meticulously crafted by tutors who have previously aced the exam themselves. With ExamGates, you can access content that is 100% relevant to the test, accompanied by vivid images and illustrations. Additionally, our platform provides comprehensive explanations for both correct and incorrect answers, empowering you to fully grasp the material and optimize your study efforts. Take the first step towards your nursing aspirations with ExamGates today.

Answer Explanation:

The correct answer is choice C. Thyroxine.

Thyroxine (T4) is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland that controls your body’s metabolism, the process in which your body transforms the food you eat into energy.

Thyroid Hormone: What It Is & Function

Choice A, Estrogen, is not the correct answer because it is a hormone responsible for the development of female secondary sexual characteristics.

Choice B, Progestin, is not the correct answer because it is a synthetic form of progesterone used in hormonal birth control and hormone replacement therapy.

Choice D, Androgen, is not the correct answer because it is a hormone responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics.

Therefore, the Correct Answer is C.

More Questions on TEAS 7 Science Test 4

Question 1:

What is the function of inflammatory cytokines released during the early response to bacterial infection?

A. Enhancing the phagocytosis of pathogens and disrupting the infection

B. Attacking invading pathogens

C. Initiating cell recruitment and local inflammation

D. Secreting antibodies to neutralize pathogens .

The Correct Answer is C.

Inflammatory cytokines released during the early response to bacterial infection play a crucial role in initiating cell recruitment and local inflammation 1.

They induce the expression of adhesion molecules in endothelial cells and promote the recruitment of neutrophils to the site of inflammation 1.

IJMS | Free Full-Text | Pathogenesis and Treatment of Cytokine Storm  Induced by Infectious Diseases

Choice A is incorrect because while inflammatory cytokines may enhance phagocytosis, they do not directly disrupt the infection.

Choice B is incorrect because inflammatory cytokines do not directly attack invading pathogens.

Choice D is incorrect because inflammatory cytokines do not secrete antibodies to neutralize pathogens.


Question 2:

What is a control group used for in scientific studies?

A. To establish causality by isolating the effect of an independent variable.

B. To establish the effect of a dependent variable on an independent variable.

C. To control the impact of extraneous variables on the dependent variable.

D. To control the impact of extraneous variables on the independent variable.

The Correct Answer is A.

A control group is used in scientific studies to establish causality by isolating the effect of an independent variable.

The control group serves as a baseline or comparison group that does not receive the treatment or intervention being tested.

 
  Control Group Definition and Examples

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

By comparing the results of the control group to the experimental group, researchers can determine if any observed changes are due to the independent variable or if they are due to chance or other factors.

Choice B is incorrect because a control group is not used to establish the effect of a dependent variable on an independent variable.

Choice C is incorrect because while a control group can help control for the impact of extraneous variables on the dependent variable, its primary purpose is to isolate the effect of the independent variable.

Choice D is incorrect because a control group is not used to control for the impact of extraneous variables on the independent variable.

 


Question 3:

Which hormone is responsible for the development of female secondary sexual characteristics such as breast development, menstrual cycle, and widening of hips?

A. Progesterone

B. Testosterone

C. Estrogen

D. FSH

The Correct Answer is C.

The correct answer is choice C. Estrogen.

Estrogen is a steroid hormone responsible for the development of female secondary sexual characteristics such as breast development, menstrual cycle, and widening of hips.

Choice A, Progesterone, is not the correct answer because it is required to maintain pregnancy and delivery.

Choice B, Testosterone, is not the correct answer because it is a hormone produced by the testes which controls the development of male secondary sexual characteristics.

Choice D, FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone), is not the correct answer because it stimulates the growth of ovarian follicles in females and regulates spermatogenesis in males.


Question 4:

Which of the following hormones is responsible for regulating the body's metabolism and energy levels?

A. Estrogen

B. Progestin

C. Thyroxine

D. Androgen

The Correct Answer is C.

The correct answer is choice C. Thyroxine.

Thyroxine (T4) is a hormone produced by the thyroid gland that controls your body’s metabolism, the process in which your body transforms the food you eat into energy.

Thyroid Hormone: What It Is & Function

Choice A, Estrogen, is not the correct answer because it is a hormone responsible for the development of female secondary sexual characteristics.

Choice B, Progestin, is not the correct answer because it is a synthetic form of progesterone used in hormonal birth control and hormone replacement therapy.

Choice D, Androgen, is not the correct answer because it is a hormone responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics.


Question 5:

A nurse is conducting a research study to compare the effects of two different pain medications on postoperative patients.

The nurse randomly assigns the patients to either receive medication A or medication B. Which of the following is the best way to ensure that the study is valid and reliable?

A. Use a large sample size and a standardized procedure for administering the medications.

B. Use a placebo group and a double-blind technique for giving the medications.

C. Use a matched-pairs design and a crossover technique for switching the medications.

D. Use a convenience sample and a pretest-posttest design for measuring the pain levels.

The Correct Answer is B.

The correct answer is choice B.

Using a placebo group and a double-blind technique for giving the medications is the best way to ensure that the study is valid and reliable.

A placebo group helps control for the placebo effect, which can influence the results of a study.

A double-blind technique means that neither the patients nor the researchers know which medication is being given, reducing bias.

Choice A is not the best answer because while a large sample size and standardized procedure can increase reliability, they do not address validity.

Choice C is not the best answer because a matched-pairs design and crossover technique are useful for reducing variability but do not address validity.

Choice D is not the best answer because a convenience sample may not be representative and a pretest-posttest design does not control for extraneous variables.


Question 6:

Which type of lymphocyte is capable of killing tumor cells and infected cells without prior sensitization?.

A. Helper T cells.

B. B cells.

C. Natural killer cells.

D. Cytotoxic T cells .

The Correct Answer is C.

Natural killer cells.

Natural killer (NK) cells are large granular lymphocytes that are capable of destroying cells infected by viruses or bacteria and susceptible tumor cells without prior sensitization and restriction by MHC antigens.

Helper T cells (choice A) are a type of white blood cell that helps other immune cells respond to infections but do not directly kill infected or tumor cells.

B cells (choice B) are a type of white blood cell that produces antibodies to fight infections but do not directly kill infected or tumor cells.

Cytotoxic T cells (choice D) are a type of white blood cell that can kill infected or tumor cells but require prior sensitization to do so.


Question 7:

What is the largest vein in the human body that returns deoxygenated blood from the upper half of the body to the right atrium of the heart?

A. Superior vena cava.

B. Inferior vena cava.

C. Pulmonary vein.

D. Renal vein.

The Correct Answer is A.

The correct answer is choice A.

The superior vena cava is the largest vein in the human body that returns deoxygenated blood from the upper half of the body to the right atrium of the heart.

Superior & Inferior Vena Cava Function & Location | What Blood Vessels Return  Blood to the Heart? - Video & Lesson Transcript | Study.com

Choice B is incorrect because the inferior vena cava returns deoxygenated blood from the lower half of the body to the right atrium of the heart.

Choice C is incorrect because the pulmonary vein carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium of the heart.

Choice D is incorrect because the renal vein carries deoxygenated blood from the kidneys to the inferior vena cava.


Question 8:

What is a primer in DNA sequencing?

A. A short piece of double-stranded DNA that binds to the template DNA and acts as a "starter" for the polymerase.

B. A short piece of double-stranded DNA that binds to the primer and acts as a "starter" for the template.

C. A short piece of single-stranded DNA that binds to the template DNA and acts as a "starter" for the polymerase.

D. A short piece of single-stranded DNA that binds to the polymerase and acts as a "starter" for the template.

The Correct Answer is C.

A primer is a short single-stranded DNA fragment used in certain laboratory techniques, such as the polymerase chain reaction (PCR).

In the PCR method, a pair of primers hybridizes with the sample DNA and defines the region that will be amplified.

hillis2e_ch09

Choice A) A short piece of double-stranded DNA that binds to the template DNA and acts as a “starter” for the polymerase is incorrect because primers are single-stranded, not double-stranded.

Choice B) A short piece of double-stranded DNA that binds to the primer and acts as a “starter” for the template is incorrect because it does not make sense for a primer to bind to itself.

Choice D) A short piece of single-stranded DNA that binds to the polymerase and acts as a “starter” for the template is incorrect because primers bind to the template DNA, not to the polymerase.

Note: DNA primers are used instead of RNA primers in DNA sequencing and PCR because DNA is more stable, specific, and compatible with the enzymes and processes involved in these techniques.


Question 9:

Which type of bond is responsible for the unique properties of water and plays a crucial role in the structure of DNA and proteins?

A. Hydrogen bonds.

B. Covalent bonds.

C. Ionic bonds.

D. Van der Waals forces.

The Correct Answer is A.

The correct answer is choice A. Hydrogen bonds.

Hydrogen bonds are responsible for the unique properties of water and play a crucial role in the structure of DNA and proteins.

Hydrogen bonds are weak electrostatic attractions between a hydrogen atom covalently bonded to an electronegative atom and another electronegative atom.

Choice B.

Covalent bonds is incorrect because covalent bonds are strong chemical bonds formed by the sharing of electrons between two atoms.

Choice C.

Ionic bonds is incorrect because ionic bonds are chemical bonds formed by the transfer of electrons from one atom to another, resulting in the formation of ions.

Choice D.

Van der Waals forces is incorrect because Van der Waals forces are weak intermolecular forces that arise from temporary dipoles induced in atoms or molecules.


Question 10:

What is the hallmark of adaptive immunity?

A. Rapid recruitment of immune cells to sites of infection and inflammation

B. Antigen-independent defense mechanism

C. Immunologic memory

D. Non-specific host-defense mechanisms .

The Correct Answer is C.

Immunologic memory is the hallmark of adaptive immunity.

Immunologic memory enables the host to mount a more rapid and efficient immune response upon subsequent exposure to the antigen.

Choice A is incorrect because rapid recruitment of immune cells to sites of infection and inflammation is a characteristic of innate immunity.

Choice B is incorrect because antigen-independent defense mechanisms are characteristic of innate immunity.

Choice D is incorrect because non-specific host-defense mechanisms are characteristic of innate immunity.