Why is water sometimes called the "universal solvent"?.

A. Because water dissolves all solutes equally well.

B. Because water is a nonpolar solvent.

C. Because water is good at dissolving ions and polar molecules.

D. Because water is poor at dissolving nonpolar molecules.

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Answer Explanation:

Water is sometimes called the “universal solvent” because it dissolves more substances than any other liquid.

This is due to its polarity and ability to form hydrogen bonds, which allows it to dissolve ions and polar molecules.

Choice A) Because water dissolves all solutes equally well is incorrect because water does not dissolve all solutes equally well.

Choice B) Because water is a nonpolar solvent is incorrect because water is a polar solvent.

Choice D) Because water is poor at dissolving nonpolar molecules is incorrect because it does not explain why water is called the “universal solvent”.

Therefore, the Correct Answer is C.

More Questions on TEAS 7 Science Test 4

Question 1:

Which of the following structures in the nephron is responsible for reabsorbing ions, water and nutrients?

A. Distal tubule

B. Proximal tubule

C. Glomerulus

D. Loop of Henle

The Correct Answer is B.

Proximal tubule

The proximal tubule is responsible for reabsorbing all the nutrients and most of the water.

 
  Tubular System | Concise Medical Knowledge

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

Choice A is incorrect because the distal tubule is not primarily responsible for reabsorbing ions, water and nutrients.

Choice C is incorrect because the glomerulus is responsible for filtering fluid and solutes out of the blood to form a glomerular filtrate.

Choice D is incorrect because the Loop of Henle is not primarily responsible for reabsorbing ions, water and nutrients.


Question 2:

A patient with chronic kidney disease is at risk for developing which of the following electrolyte imbalances?

A. Decrease in the concentration of calcium in the glomerulus.

B. Increase in the concentration of potassium in the blood.

C. Decrease in the concentration of sodium in the blood.

D. Increase in the concentration of magnesium in the blood.

The Correct Answer is B.

The correct answer is choice B.

A patient with chronic kidney disease is at risk for developing an increase in the concentration of potassium in the blood.

The kidneys play a pivotal role in the regulation of electrolyte balance.

With progressive loss of kidney function, derangements in electrolytes inevitably occur and contribute to poor patient outcomes123.

Choice A is incorrect because calcium concentration is not regulated in the glomerulus.

Choice C is incorrect because chronic kidney disease can result in either an increase or decrease in sodium concentration in the blood.

Choice D is incorrect because chronic kidney disease does not necessarily result in an increase in magnesium concentration in the blood.


Question 3:

Which of the following refers to a condition in which a patient experiences difficulty breathing while lying down, but their breathing improves when they sit up or stand?

A. Orthopnea

B. Hypoxia

C. Tachypnea

D. Bradypnea

The Correct Answer is A.

The correct answer is choice A. Orthopnea.

Orthopnea refers to a condition in which a patient experiences difficulty breathing while lying down, but their breathing improves when they sit up or stand.

 
  Orthopnea: Symptoms, Causes, Diagnosis, and Treatment

 

 

 

Choice B, Hypoxia, is not the correct answer because it refers to a condition in which there is a lack of oxygen supply to the body’s tissues.

Choice C, Tachypnea, is not the correct answer because it refers to rapid breathing.

Choice D, Bradypnea, is not the correct answer because it refers to abnormally slow breathing.


Question 4:

Which type of lymphocyte is capable of killing tumor cells and infected cells without prior sensitization?.

A. Helper T cells.

B. B cells.

C. Natural killer cells.

D. Cytotoxic T cells .

The Correct Answer is C.

Natural killer cells.

Natural killer (NK) cells are large granular lymphocytes that are capable of destroying cells infected by viruses or bacteria and susceptible tumor cells without prior sensitization and restriction by MHC antigens.

Helper T cells (choice A) are a type of white blood cell that helps other immune cells respond to infections but do not directly kill infected or tumor cells.

B cells (choice B) are a type of white blood cell that produces antibodies to fight infections but do not directly kill infected or tumor cells.

Cytotoxic T cells (choice D) are a type of white blood cell that can kill infected or tumor cells but require prior sensitization to do so.


Question 5:

What is the normal flora?

A. A variety of microbial species found in certain areas of the human body.

B. A group of infectious parasites that cause diarrheal diseases.

C. The genetic material of bacteria housed within a true nucleus.

D. The protein coat surrounding the viral genome.

The Correct Answer is A.

The normal flora refers to the microbial community that colonizes on the skin and mucus membrane .

Normal flora can be found in many sites of the human body including the skin, respiratory tract, urinary tract, and the digestive tract.

Frontiers | Microbial Colonization From the Fetus to Early Childhood„A  Comprehensive Review

Choice B is incorrect because normal flora does not refer to a group of infectious parasites that cause diarrheal diseases .

Choice C is incorrect because normal flora does not refer to the genetic material of bacteria housed within a true nucleus .

Choice D is incorrect because normal flora does not refer to the protein coat surrounding the viral genome .


Question 6:

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been declared brain dead and is awaiting organ donation.

Which of the following interventions is most important to preserve the viability of the organs?

A. Administering antibiotics to prevent infection.

B. Maintaining normal body temperature and blood pressure.

C. Providing emotional support to the family members.

D. Applying eye drops and ointment to prevent corneal drying.

The Correct Answer is B.

The correct answer is choice B.

Maintaining normal body temperature and blood pressure.

Early identification and management of potential organ donors must take into consideration specific pathophysiologic changes for medical optimization 1.

The VIPPS (ventilation, infusion and pumping, pharmacological treatment, and specificities) strategy is a mnemonic method that brings together key aspects of the restoration of oxygen delivery to tissues during hemodynamic instability plus organ optimization strategies.

Choice A is incorrect because administering antibiotics to prevent infection is not the most important intervention to preserve organ viability.

Choice C is incorrect because providing emotional support to family members, while important, is not an intervention that directly affects organ viability.

Choice D is incorrect because applying eye drops and ointment to prevent corneal drying is not the most important intervention to preserve organ viability.


Question 7:

In which type of tissue would you find a fibrous protein that provides strength and protection to the body, particularly in the skin, hair, and nails?

A. Keratin

B. Collagen

C. Elastin

D. Actin

The Correct Answer is A.

The correct answer is choice A. Keratin.

Keratin is a fibrous protein that provides strength and protection to the body, particularly in the skin, hair, and nails.

 
  Keratin Overview, Structure & Function | What is Keratin? - Video & Lesson  Transcript | Study.com

 

 

 

It is found in epithelial tissue, which covers the body’s surface and lines its internal organs and cavities.

Choice B.

 

Collagen is incorrect because collagen is a fibrous protein that provides strength and support to connective tissues such as tendons, ligaments, and cartilage.

Choice C.

Elastin is incorrect because elastin is a protein that provides elasticity to tissues such as skin and blood vessels.

Choice D.

Actin is incorrect because actin is a protein that plays a role in muscle contraction and cell movement.


Question 8:

What is the purpose of using PCR (polymerase chain reaction) in the laboratory?

A. To separate DNA fragments by size.

B. To amplify specific regions of DNA.

C. To sequence DNA fragments.

D. To analyze protein expression levels.

The Correct Answer is B.

The correct answer is choice B.

To amplify specific regions of DNA.

PCR (polymerase chain reaction) is a laboratory technique used to make many copies of a specific region of DNA.

 
  Polymerase chain reaction - Wikipedia

 

 

The goal of PCR is to make enough of the target DNA region that it can be analyzed or used in some other way.

PCR has many research and practical applications, including DNA cloning, medical diagnostics, and forensic analysis of DNA.

Choice A is incorrect because PCR does not separate DNA fragments by size. Choice C is incorrect because PCR does not sequence DNA fragments.

Choice D is incorrect because PCR does not analyze protein expression levels.


Question 9:

What is the hallmark of adaptive immunity?

A. Rapid recruitment of immune cells to sites of infection and inflammation

B. Antigen-independent defense mechanism

C. Immunologic memory

D. Non-specific host-defense mechanisms .

The Correct Answer is C.

Immunologic memory is the hallmark of adaptive immunity.

Immunologic memory enables the host to mount a more rapid and efficient immune response upon subsequent exposure to the antigen.

Choice A is incorrect because rapid recruitment of immune cells to sites of infection and inflammation is a characteristic of innate immunity.

Choice B is incorrect because antigen-independent defense mechanisms are characteristic of innate immunity.

Choice D is incorrect because non-specific host-defense mechanisms are characteristic of innate immunity.


Question 10:

In a well-designed experiment, all variables apart from the treatment should be kept constant between what?.

A. Control group and treatment group.

B. Independent variable and dependent variable.

C. Experimental group and non-experimental group.

D. High level and low level of the independent variable.

The Correct Answer is A.

In a well-designed experiment, all variables apart from the treatment should be kept constant between the control group and treatment group.

This means researchers can correctly measure the entire effect of the treatment without interference from confounding variables.

 

Control group in science | Chegg Writing

 

Choice B) Independent variable and dependent variable is incorrect because these are not groups but rather variables.

The independent variable is manipulated by the experimenters while the dependent variable is measured to see if it changes as a result of the manipulation.

Choice C) Experimental group and non-experimental group is incorrect because a non-experimental group is not a term used in experimental design.

The correct term for the group that does not receive the treatment is control group.

Choice D) High level and low level of the independent variable is incorrect because these are levels of the independent variable, not groups.

In an experiment, there can be multiple levels of the independent variable, but they are applied to different groups (e.g.

control group, treatment group).